Author name: CBCL

Understanding the SEBI Order in the Matter of PwC

Understanding the SEBI Order in the Matter of PwC. [Udyan Arya] The author is a fourth-year student at National Law Institute University, Bhopal. On January 10, 2018, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”) passed an order against accounting firms practicing under the brand Price Waterhouse (“PwC”). The order bars PwC from issuing audit and compliance certificates to listed companies for a period of two years and imposes a penalty of Rs. 13.09 crores with interest. The genesis of the present order can be traced back to the 2010 Bombay High Court judgment in the case of Price Waterhouse & Co. v. SEBI,[1] wherein the Court ruled that SEBI possessed the necessary powers to initiate investigations against an auditor of a listed company for alleged wrongdoing. PwC’s challenge to this ruling, by way of a special leave petition in the Supreme Court, was dismissed in 2013.[2] Background SEBI issued Show Cause Notices (“SCNs”) to PwC pertaining to PwC’s audit of Satyam Computer Services Limited (“Satyam”). SEBI, in its investigation, had found false and inflated current account bank balances, fixed deposit balances, fictitious interest income revenue from sales and debtors’ figures in the books of account and the financial statements of Satyam for several years. The SCNs alleged that the statutory auditors of Satyam had connived with the directors and employees in falsifying the financial statements of Satyam. The SCNs sought to initiate action against PwC under Sections 11, 11(4), and 11B of the SEBI Act, 1992 and Regulation 11 of the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Relating to Securities Markets) Regulations, 2003. The Bombay High Court Judgment PwC filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court challenging the SCNs claiming that SEBI did not have jurisdiction to initiate action against auditors discharging their duties as Chartered Accountants (“CAs”). Only the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (“ICAI”) established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 could impose restrictions on CAs and determine if there has been a violation of the applicable auditing norms. SEBI, therefore, was encroaching upon the powers of ICAI by issuing the impugned SCNs. The Court observed that SEBI’s powers under the SEBI Act were of wide amplitude and could take within its sweep a CA if his activities are detrimental to the interests of the investors or the securities market,[3] and that taking remedial measures to protect the securities market could not be equated with regulating the accounting profession.[4] Since investors are guided by the audited balance sheets of the company, the auditor’s statutory duties may have a direct bearing on the interests of the investors and the stability of the securities market.[5] The Court, however, asked SEBI to confine the exercise of its jurisdiction to the object of protecting the interests of investors and regulating the securities market and, ultimately, its jurisdiction over CAs would depend upon the evidence which it could adduce during the course of inquiry.[6] If the evidence showed that there were no intentional or wilful omissions or lapses by the auditors, SEBI could not pass directions. The Supreme Court, on appeal, upheld the decision. The SEBI Order Jurisdiction of SEBI Taking note of the decision of the Bombay High Court, SEBI held that if the evidence sufficiently indicates the possibility of there being a role of the auditors in the alleged fraud, then SEBI, as a securities market regulator, is empowered to protect the interests of the investors and could proceed to pass appropriate directions as proposed in the SCNs. Duties of Auditors The order has extensively dwelled upon the duties of auditors under the regulatory framework in India and whether the auditors in question had discharged their professional duties in accordance with the principles that regulate the undertaking of an independent audit.[7] The auditor’s conduct was checked against the applicable accounting standards and principles, and significant departures were found in the audit. It was noted that 70 percent of the Satyam’s assets comprised of bank balances, which, being a high-risk asset prone to fraud and misappropriation, warranted significant audit attention. However, the auditors failed to maintain essential control over the process of external confirmations and verifications, as mandated under the Audit & Accounting Standards of ICAI. The role of independent auditors in a public company was emphasized.[8] Since the certifications issued by auditors have a definite influence on the minds of the investors, it was held that the auditors owe an obligation to the shareholders of a company to report the true and correct facts about its financials since they are appointed by the shareholders themselves. Findings Finding PwC grossly lacking in fulfilling their duties as statutory auditors, SEBI noted that the acts of the auditor induced the public to trade consistently in the shares of the company. It was noted that the auditors made material representations in the certifications without any supporting document, pointing towards gross negligence and fraudulent misrepresentation. The auditors failed to show any evidence to the effect that they had done their job in consonance with the standards of professional duty and care as required and they were well aware of the consequences of their omissions which made them liable for commission of fraud for the purposes of the SEBI Act and the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003.[9] Liability of the PwC Network The SCNs sought to impugn liability on all firms operating under the banner of PwC in India. The PwC network firms were found to be linked to each other on the basis of the following facts: The firms forming part of the network are either members of or connected with Price Waterhouse Coopers International Ltd. (“PwCIL”), a UK-based private company; The said firms entered into Resource Sharing Agreements with each other. The webpage of PwC global (https://www.PwC.com/gx/en/about/corporategovernance/ network-structure.html), showed PwC as “the brand under which the member firms of PricewaterhouseCoopers International Limited (PwCIL) operate and provide professional services.” Member firms of PwCIL were given the benefit of using the name of PwC and

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Looking Through the Prism of the Bombay High Court Judgment in Chief Controlling Authority v. RIL: An Analysis of the Issue of Stamp Duty

Looking Through the Prism of the Bombay High Court Judgment in Chief Controlling Authority v. RIL: An Analysis of the Issue of Stamp Duty. [Gauri Nagar] The author is a third-year student at Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University, Lucknow. A recent celebrated decision of the Bombay High Court in Chief Controlling Revenue Authority v. Reliance Industries Limited (“RIL“) (judgment dated 31st March, 2016) has essentially ignited a debate among corporate lawyers over whether stamp duty is payable on the order permitting a scheme of amalgamation where the transferor company and the transferee company have their respective registered offices in two distinct states in India. In the case of J.K. (Bombay) Pvt. Ltd v. M/s Kaiser-I-Hind Spinning & Weaving Co. Ltd., the Supreme Court’s view was that the particular scheme of amalgamation was obligatory in nature and had a force equivalent to that of a statute. The creditors and the shareholders could not, therefore, dissent to it. Moreover, the scheme could be altered only by the court’s sanction irrespective of the shareholders’ and the creditors’ acquiescence to the alteration. An important thing that should be known is that the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 was enacted as a central legislation in order to impose stamp duties across the nation, but states have the requisite power to incorporate amendments in the Act. Further, states have an exclusive right to design their stamp duty laws in accordance with List II and List III of Schedule VII of the Constitution. States like Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Kerala have their own legislations pertaining to the subject matter of stamp duty. When the Bombay Stamp Act, 1958 was enacted, it had similar provisions as those in the Indian Stamp Act, 1899. Section 2(g) of the Act was amended subsequently. Pertaining to ‘conveyance,’ the provision states, “every order made by the High Court under Section 394 of the Companies Act, in respect of amalgamation of companies; by which property, whether movable or immovable, or any estate or interest in any property is transferred to, or vested in, any person, inter vivos, and which is not otherwise specifically provided for by Schedule I.” The definition of ‘instrument’ as given under section 2(l) of the Act serves as a point of guidance. An instrument means “any document by which any right or liability is created and transferred.” In the case of Hindustan Lever v. State of Maharashtra (judgment dated 18th November, 2003), the Supreme Court held that an instrument would encapsulate within its fold every court’s order (also an order of an industrial tribunal), and that it would be subjected to a stamp duty. The order under section 394 would come within the periphery of section 2(l) of the Bombay Stamp Act that includes all documents through which any right or liability has been transferred. The transfer is sanctioned by the court’s order due to which the “sanctioning order” becomes an instrument to transfer properties. However, a completely different stance was adopted by a division bench of the Calcutta High Court in the case of Madhu Intra Limited & Anr. v. Registrar of Companies & Ors.(judgment dated 22nd January, 2004) wherein the Court did not take into consideration the viewpoint adopted by the Bombay High Court in the Li Taka Pharmaceuticals (judgment dated 19th February, 1996) and ruled that the process of transferring assets and liabilities by the transferor company to transferee company occurs only on an order made under sub-section (1) of section 394 due to applicability of sub-section (2) of section 394. This is the reason why a court’s order that sanctions a scheme cannot tantamount to be an instrument due to the reason that such transfer is only through the operation of law. The same issue cropped up in the case of Delhi Towers Ltd v. GNCT of Delhi (judgment given in December, 2009), wherein it was ruled by the Delhi High Court that the Supreme Court judgment on this issue stands to be consistent and that the scheme of amalgamation is well within the definition of instrument. On the other hand, the High Court of Delhi was on the same page with the Supreme Court (in Hindustan Lever case) and opposed the view of the Calcutta High Court. Also, at that time, Delhi did not have its own stamp law that had similar provisions as that in the Bombay Act. The intention of the legislature was to include a court’s order under section 394 within the term instrument and that extended to the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 as well. Registered Offices in Different States within India If an instrument is subjected to a stamp duty and that an order passed under section 394 is an instrument, it can be inferred that such order would attract a stamp duty. If the amalgamating parties are present in the same state, they would have to pay the stamp duty of that certain state only. The RIL case basically dealt with a circumstance wherein the two amalgamating companies were present in two different states. The Court suggested that sections 391 and 394 should be read collectively and that an order sanctioning the amalgamation scheme should be obtained by both the transferor as well as by the transferee company.  It is obligatory for both the companies to obtain such order from their respective high courts that have the required jurisdiction and should pay the stamp duty that is pertinent to their respective states. The amalgamation scheme is supposed to bind the dissenting members and creditors of both the companies and should not merely be used for transferring property, assets, etc. Two Schemes and Stamp Duty Being Paid Twice: Can a Claim for Rebate Exist? If an execution of a scheme occurs outside State A but is eventually given to the stamping authorities in State A, the party has to pay the stamp duty in the state in which it was executed. Not only this, it also has to pay the stamp duty in the state where the certified copy of the instrument had been received. Also, the party can ask for differential payment

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The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2017: Key Highlights and Implications

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2017: Key Highlights and Implications. [Mudit Nigam] The author is a third-year student of National Law Institute University, Bhopal. The President of India, in exercise his power under Article 123 of the Constitution of India, promulgated the ordinance titled the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017 (“Ordinance”). The purpose of the Ordinance was to strengthen the insolvency resolution process by disqualifying certain persons from presenting a resolution plan under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (“Code”). However, the same was widely debated as it imposed restrictions on presentation of resolution plan by connected persons thereby adversely affecting the initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process.  In order to fill the gaps and clarify the position, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2017 (“Bill”) was passed by Parliament in January, 2018 and currently awaits the President’s assent. The Bill extends the application of the Code to the personal guarantors to the corporate debtor and the proprietorship firms who were earlier immune from any liability under the Code.[1] This has brought much needed clarity on initiation of insolvency process against the personal guarantors of the corporate debtor. Reference must be made to the judgment of the Allahabad High Court in case of Sanjeev Shriya v. State Bank of India, wherein the Court observed that moratorium issued under section 14 of the Code would be applicable to the proceedings initiated against the personal guarantors.[2] The applicability of the Code to proprietorship firms will ensure proper completion of insolvency resolution process against small and medium enterprises (SMEs), which often run on a proprietorship model. A “resolution applicant” under section 5(25) of the Code includes any person who presents a resolution plan to the insolvency professional. However, after the amendment takes effect, the scope of the term would be limited only to such persons who fulfill the eligibility criteria prescribed by way of the amendment and who present a resolution plan in pursuance of the invitation by the insolvency professional under the amended section 25 (2)(h). The imposition of the eligibility criteria is likely to prevent unscrupulous persons from presenting a resolution plan and prevent unnecessary proceedings against the corporate debtor. Further, this change will give importance to the interests of the creditors as they will also have a say in approving the eligibility criteria. Another implication of this change is that it allows persons to jointly submit a resolution plan, thereby facilitating acquisition of large stressed assets. The Bill further amends the duties of a resolution professional under section 25 of the Code. Prior to the amendment, the resolution professional had a duty to invite any prospective lender or investor, or any other person. However, after the amendment, a resolution professional would be under an obligation to impose certain eligibility criteria with the approval of the committee of creditors, which criteria would have to be fulfilled by a resolution applicant in order to qualify for an invitation to present a resolution plan. While deciding the eligibility criteria, regard shall be given to the complexity as well as the scale of operations of the corporate debtor’s business, in addition to other conditions as may be specified by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India. The Bill inserts a new section 29A in the Code which expressly bars certain persons from presenting a resolution plan. Unlike the Ordinance, the Bill uses the expression ‘persons acting jointly or in concert,’[3] which implies that apart from the ineligible person, any other person acting together with such person for a common objective is also ineligible to be a resolution applicant. The new section also bars undischarged insolvents, disqualified directors,[4] willful defaulters,[5] promoters, and persons whose account has been classified as a non-performing asset by the Reserve Bank of India and a period of a year or more has been passed after such classification. However, the Bill allows such ineligible account holders to become eligible to submit a resolution plan if they clear all the overdue amounts with interest and other charges relating to their NPA accounts.[6] The section also disqualifies a person upon conviction for an offence punishable with 2 years of imprisonment or more. It is still unclear whether the person must be convicted for an economic offence or for any other offence as well, although the use of the word ‘any’ suggests that the nature of the offence is immaterial. Unlike the Ordinance which disqualified a person who ‘has been’ prohibited by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”) from trading and accessing in securities market, section 29A as introduced by the Bill prohibits only a person who is currently barred by the SEBI. This brings more clarity as the Bill relaxes the earlier complete restriction imposed on persons who have been previously disqualified by the SEBI. The same section explicitly disqualifies a promoter or a person who in managerial or controlling capacity in the company/corporate debtor has indulged in unlawful transactions as decided by the National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”). Much confusion lies on the presentation of a plan by the guarantor of a corporate debtor. The Ordinance as well as the Bill, under the newly introduced section 29A, bars guarantors of the corporate debtor against whom insolvency proceeding has been initiated. On December 18, 2017, the NCLT in the matter of MBL Infrastructure Limited, observed that the words ‘enforceable guarantee’ used in the section mean and refer to such class of guarantors within the entire class of guarantors who, on account of their antecedent, may adversely impact the credibility of the process under the Code. Thus, a guarantor cannot be disqualified only on the ground of existence of a binding contract of guarantee.  However, an appeal has been preferred against this order and the matter is pending before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal. Under clause (j) of section 29A, persons ‘connected’ with the debarred persons are also ineligible to present the plan. Unlike the Ordinance, the Bill clearly explains the words ‘connected person’ as including promoters, persons in managerial capacity and

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Condonation of Delay Scheme: Testing the Utility

Condonation of Delay Scheme: Testing the Utility. [Tushar Behl and Priyanka Sharma] The authors are third-year students of School of Law, University of Petroleum and Energy Studies, Dehradun. They may be reached at behl.tushar96@gmail.com. The Companies Act, 2013 (‘‘Act’’) has been in need of a substantial revamp for some time now, to make it more contemporary and relevant to the corporate world. The changes in the Act have long term implications which have been set to notably change the manner in which the corporates operate in India. While several successful as well as unsuccessful attempts have been made earlier to revise the existing Act, one of them leads us to the very recent, Condonation of Delay Scheme (“CODS”). Every company registered under the Act is inter alia required to file their annual financial statements[1] and annual returns[2] with the Registrar of Companies (‘‘ROC’’), and non-filing of such reports is an offence under the Act. Under the present Act, on account of default by a company in filing annual return or financial statement for a continuous period of 3 years, company directors are, by virtue of section 164(2)[3] read with section 167[4] of the Act, disqualified. Additionally, the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014[5] confer a responsibility upon the director to inform the company concerned about his disqualification in respect of form DIR-8.[6] In line with the Act, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (‘‘MCA’’) recently went into the process of marking out defaulting companies and recognized 3,09,614 directors associated with companies that had substantially failed to file their annual financial statements and annual returns in MCA online registry for a 3-year financial period starting from 2013-14 to 2015-2016. Following the MCA identification process, most of the disqualified directors have filed writ petitions and representations before various high courts and the National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”), hoping to obtain relief therefrom. Keeping this consideration in view, the Central Government, and the MCA in exercise of its powers conferred under the Act,[7] have collectively decided to roll out the CODS in order to provide a final opportunity in the form of a ‘three-month window’ for the non-compliant and defaulting companies to rectify the default, and normalize and regularize the compliance issues. The CODS came into force from January 01, 2018 and shall continue till March 31, 2018- a clear prescribed period of three months. This scheme will be applicable to all defaulting companies, leaving aside those whose names have been struck off from the ROC by virtue of Section 248(5)[8] of the Act. During this period, the Director Identification Number (“DIN”) of all the disqualified directors will be re-activated temporarily to smoothen the process of filing all overdue documents in respective E-forms.[9] In addition to the overdue documents, the defaulting company has to file form e-CODS 2018 along with a Rs. 30,000 charge. If a director of the defaulting company fails to utilise the CODS and regularise compliance after the end of the three-month window period, his DIN will be deactivated and he will be further disqualified for a total period of 5 years. Primarily, the CODS is meant only for companies whose process of filing is clear/active but whose directors are disqualified. However, as regards a company whose name has been removed[10] and which has filed an application under section 252[11] on or before January 1, 2018 for which the matter has been listed before the NCLT for restoration of the name, the DIN of its disqualified director(s) shall be reactivated temporarily after the NCLT authorizes reinstitution, and permanently only after the overdue documents have been duly filed within the three-month period. A question that still remains unanswered is whether the whole of the process-application for reinstitution, order of the NCLT, and filing of overdue documents- needs to be completed by March 31, 2018, and whether other non-defaulting companies can also apply for the same. Secondly, in the case of defaulting companies which have shut their business or in respect of whom the application for reinstitution has been rejected by NCLT, how exactly the disqualified directors could cure disqualification needs to be clarified. Finally, it remains uncertain whether disqualification will actually be removed upon filing of all pending documents or whether further action will be required, such as filing of form DIR-10.[12] The scheme appears to be a one-time opportunity given to active defaulting companies whose directors have been disqualified. The time period of the scheme is indeed short, especially when we take into account struck-off companies which are burdened with the entire procedure of restitution of name, pending filings and filing of e-CODS 2018 within a short span of three months. Even though the scheme has already become operational, the process for ‘reactivating’ the DINs in system in respect of disqualified directors is still in progress and will not be activated for e-filing until January 12, 2018. This, it is submitted, is likely to delay the process. Taking into consideration the Delhi High Court’s order giving wide publicity[13] to the CODS and its aim of benefitting a large number of disqualified directors, it seems that the scheme may provide for such efficiency as deemed just for placing the company and all other essential persons in the same position (as nearly as possible) as if the company had not been struck off from the register of companies. During the operation of the scheme, it is hoped that the defaulting companies complete their pending annual filings, enable restoration and make the best use of the opportunity. [1] The Act, section 137. [2] Ibid, section 92(4). [3] Ibid, section 164(2). [4] Ibid, section 167. [5] The Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014, rule 14. [6] Every director of the company in each financial year is required to make disclosure of non-disqualification to the company. [7] The Act, sections 403, 459 and 460. [8] Ibid, section 248(5). [9] Under the CODS, only the following E-forms can be filed: Form 20B/MGT-7, Form 21A/MGT-7, Form 23AC, 23ACA, 23AC-XBRL, 23ACA-XBRL, AOC-4, AOC-4(CFS), AOC (XBRL), AOC-4(non-XBRL), Form 66,

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Discordant Notes in IBC Jurisprudence: The Sanjeev Shriya Case

Discordant Notes in IBC Jurisprudence: The Sanjeev Shriya Case. [Riddhi Joshi] The author is a second-year student at Symbiosis Law School, Pune. The author may be reached at riddhi.dhananjay@symlaw.ac.in. On 6th September, 2017, the Allahabad High Court passed a judgment in the case ofSanjeev Shriya v. SBI, extending the moratorium provided for under section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“IBC”) to personal guarantors in respect of the debts alleged to have remained unpaid by a corporate debtor. Facts of the Case The factual matrix of the case is as follows. M/s. LML Ltd. (“LML”) was declared a ‘sick industrial company’ by the Board for Industrial Financial Reconstruction on May 8, 2007. Under the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, State Bank of India filed an application before the Debt Recovery Tribunal (“DRT”) for recovery of the debt owed by LML. The Bank instituted the proceedings for recovery of the dues jointly and severally from LML as well as from the personal guarantors. LML filed an application to initiate the corporate insolvency process under Section 10 of the IBC. On May 30, 2017, the National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”), Allahabad Bench admitted the application and, as contemplated in section 14 of the IBC, imposed a moratorium on the institution of suits or continuation of pending proceedings against LML. LML and the personal guarantors then moved an application at the DRT seeking stay of proceedings filed by the Bank before the DRT. In view of the NCLT’s order, the DRT stayed the proceedings but only against LML and observed that there was no order to restrain the proceedings against the personal guarantors. The personal guarantors challenged this order of the DRT before the Allahabad High Court. Judgment While staying the proceedings at the DRT against even the personal guarantors, the Allahabad High Court relied on sections 60(1) and 60(2) of the IBC, which provide that the Adjudicating Authority in relation to personal guarantors shall be the NCLT. The High Court observed that in cases where the insolvency resolution process has already begun, the application relating to insolvency resolution of a personal guarantor would also lie before the same NCLT. The High Court also observed that when the primary debt is still in a fluid state, two parallel proceedings in different jurisdictions cannot be maintained. Based on this reasoning, the High Court stayed the proceedings at the DRT even against the personal guarantors. Analysis Unfortunately, the High Court appears to have erred. The Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act, 1985 (“SICA”) was the precursor to the current regime under the IBC. Section 22 of SICA contemplated a bar on proceedings against a ‘sick industrial company’ in pari materia to the moratarium under section 14 of the IBC. Section 22(1) of SICA provided- Where in respect of an industrial company, an inquiry under section 16 is pending or any scheme referred to under section 17 is under preparation or consideration or a sanctioned scheme is under implementation or where an appeal under section 25 relating to an industrial company is pending, then, notwithstanding anything contained in the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), or any other law…no proceedings for the winding up of the industrial company or for execution, distress or the like against any of the properties of the industrial company or for the appointment of a receiver in respect thereof and no suit for the recovery of money or for the enforcement of any security against the industrial company or of any guarantee in respect of any loans or advance granted to the industrial company shall lie or be proceeded with further, except with the consent of the Board or, as the case may be, the Appellate Authority. This provision came up for consideration before the Supreme Court in Kailash Nath Agarwal v. Pradeshiya Industrial and Investment Corporation of U.P. The Supreme Court first took note of section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which provides that the liability of a surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor, unless it is otherwise provided by contract. While reviewing the section, the Supreme Court also relied on the well established principle of statutory interpretation that where the language of the provision is explicit, the language of the statute must prevail. The Court held that, in section 22, the terms ‘proceedings’ and ‘suit’ have not been used interchangeably. ‘Proceedings’ being a wider term than ‘suit’, the bar on ‘proceedings’ applies only with respect to the industrial company. The Court, therefore, held that proceedings other than a suit for recovery can be proceeded with against the personal guarantors. Now, section 14(1) of the IBC lays down as follows- (1) Subject to provisions of sub-sections (2) and (3), on the insolvency commencement date, the Adjudicating Authority shall by order declare moratorium for prohibiting all of the following, namely:— (a) the institution of suits or continuation of pending suits or proceedings against the corporate debtor including execution of any judgment, decree or order in any court of law, tribunal, arbitration panel or other authority; (b) transferring, encumbering, alienating or disposing of by the corporate debtor any of its assets or any legal right or beneficial interest therein; (c) any action to foreclose, recover or enforce any security interest created by the corporate debtor in respect of its property including any action under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002; (d) the recovery of any property by an owner or lessor where such property is occupied by or in the possession of the corporate debtor. Clearly, there is no language in this section barring proceedings against personal guarantors. In fact, in Schweitzer Systemek India Pvt. Ltd. v. Phoenix ARC Pvt. Ltd., the NCLT, Mumbai Bench clearly interpreted the benefit of the moratorium to be limited only to corporate debtors. It is unfortunate that Schewitzer Systemek India was not brought to the attention of the Allahabad High Court. It is more unfortunate that, even though

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Analysing Supreme Court’s Ruling in Macquarie Bank v. Shilpi Cable

[Vishakha Srivastava and Ashutosh Kashyap] The authors are fourth-year students at Chanakya National Law University, Patna. In the case of Macquarie Bank Ltd. v. Shilpi Cable Technologies Ltd., the Supreme Court was confronted with two pertinent questions in relation to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“Code“): firstly, whether, in relation to an operational debt, the provision contained in Section 9(3)(c)[1] of the Code is mandatory; secondly, whether a demand notice of an unpaid operational debt can be issued by a lawyer on behalf of the operational creditor. Facts of the Case Hamera International Private Limited executed an agreement with the Appellant, Macquarie Bank Limited, Singapore, by which the Appellant purchased the original supplier’s right, title and interest in a supply agreement in favour of the Respondent. The Respondent entered into an agreement for supply of goods in accordance with the terms and conditions contained in the said sales contract. Since amounts under the bills of lading were due for payment, the Appellant issued a statutory notice under sections 433[2] and 434[3] of the Companies Act, 1956. After the enactment of the Code, the Appellant issued a demand notice under section 8 of the Code[4] to the contesting Respondent, calling upon it to pay the outstanding amount. The contesting Respondent stated that nothing was owed by them to the Appellant. They further went on to question the validity of the purchase agreement dated in favour of the Appellant. The Appellant initiated the insolvency proceedings by filing a petition under section 9 of the Code.[5] The National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”) rejected the petition holding that section 9(3)(c) of the Code was not complied with, inasmuch as no certificate, as required by the said provision, accompanied the application filed under Section 9. Decisions of the Adjudicating Authorities The NCLT held that section 9(3)(c) of the Code is a mandatory provision, and therefore, non-compliance of the provision would lead to rejection of the application seeking to initiate insolvency proceedings. Thus, it was held that the application would have to be dismissed at the threshold. On appeal, the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (“NCLAT”) agreed with the NCLT holding that the application would have to be dismissed for non-compliance of the mandatory provision contained in section 9(3)(c) of the Code. It further held that an advocate/lawyer cannot issue a notice under section 8 on behalf of the operational creditor. The NCLAT observed that as there was nothing on the record to suggest that the lawyer/ advocate held any position with or in relation to the Appellant, the notice issued by the advocate/ lawyer on behalf of the Appellant could not be treated as notice under section 8 of the Code. Appeal to the Supreme Court The Court observed that the first thing to be noticed on a conjoint reading of sections 8 and 9 of the Code, as explained in Mobilox Innovations Private Limited v. Kirusa Software Private Limited, is that Section 9(1) contains the conditions precedent for triggering the Code insofar as an operational creditor is concerned. The requisite elements necessary to trigger the Code are: occurrence of a default; delivery of a demand notice of an unpaid operational debt or invoice demanding payment of the amount involved; and the fact that the operational creditor has not received payment from the corporate debtor within a period of 10 days of receipt of the demand notice or copy of invoice demanding payment, or received a reply from the corporate debtor which does not indicate the existence of a pre-existing dispute or repayment of the unpaid operational debt. It is only when these conditions are met that an application may then be filed under section 9(2) of the Code in the prescribed manner, accompanied with such fee as has been prescribed. Under section 9(3), what is clear is that, along with the application, certain other information is also to be furnished. Under section 9(3)(a), a copy of the invoice demanding payment or demand notice delivered by the operational creditor to the corporate debtor is to be furnished. Under rules 5 and 6 of the Adjudicating Authority Rules 2016, read with Forms 3 and 5, it is clear that, as Annexure I thereto, the application in any case must have a copy of the invoice/demand notice attached to the application. That this is a mandatory condition precedent to the filing of an application is clear from a conjoint reading of sections 8 and 9(1) of the Code. On a reading of sub-clause (c) of section 9(3), it is equally clear that a copy of the certificate from the financial institution maintaining accounts of the operational creditor confirming that there is no payment of an unpaid operational debt by the corporate debtor is certainly not a condition precedent to triggering the insolvency process under the Code. The expression “confirming” makes it clear that this is only a piece of evidence, albeit a very important piece of evidence, which only “confirms” that there is no payment of an unpaid operational debt. The true construction of section 9(3)(c) is that it is a procedural provision, which is directory in nature, as the Adjudicatory Authority Rules read with the Code clearly demonstrate. The Court further observed that section 8 of the Code speaks of an operational creditor “delivering” a demand notice. It is clear that had the legislature wished to restrict such demand notice being sent by the operational creditor himself, the expression used would perhaps have been “issued” and not “delivered”. Delivery, therefore, would postulate that such notice could be made by an authorized agent. In fact, in Forms 3 and 5, it is clear that this is the understanding of the draftsman of the Adjudicatory Authority Rules, because the signature of the person “authorized to act” on behalf of the operational creditor must be appended to both the demand notice as well as the application under section 9 of the Code. The position further becomes clear that both forms require such authorized agent to state his position with or in relation to the operational

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Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance Bill, 2017: An Analysis

Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance Bill, 2017: An Analysis. [Shajal Sarda] The author is a fourth-year student at National Law Institute University, Bhopal. The Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance Bill, 2017 (hereinafter referred to as the “Bill“) proposed by the government attempts at providing for a comprehensive law for the resolution and restoration of financial/covered service providers who are classified under certain heads of risk to viability with respect to the timely payment of their liabilities. The Bill provides for the establishment of the Resolution Corporation whose general direction and management shall be done by a board which, in consultation with the appropriate regulator, shall lay down the objective criteria to classify covered service providers in terms of their viability into five categories viz. low, moderate, material, imminent and critical.[1] The appropriate regulator, after inspection or otherwise, shall classify the covered service provider under one of the categories mentioned above.[2] Based on the category of the covered service provider with respect to the risk to viability, the covered service provider shall be asked to submit a resolution plan to the resolution corporation and a restoration plan to the appropriate regulator under the Bill.[3] The Bill provides for various methods or combinations thereof that can be adopted for the resolution of the covered service provider under the risk category above moderate.[4] These methods can be transfer of the whole or part of the assets or liability of the service provider to another person under the terms agreed upon by the corporation, merger or amalgamation, creation of a bridge service provider as per section 50 of the Bill, acquisition of the service provider, or bail-in in accordance with section 52 of the Bill.[5] The Resolution Corporation shall replace the present Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), a Reserve Bank of India subsidiary which insures all kinds of deposits with the banks up to an amount of Rs. 1 lakh. Till now, it has been mandatory for the banks to pay an amount as premium to DICGC for the insurance of deposits.[6] The Resolution Corporation has been endowed with the same function under the Bill, though the amount of deposit insurance has not been specified, something which the Board is required to do in consultation with the appropriate regulator.[7] Purpose of the Bill The government has time and again attempted to increase the trust of consumers in the credit delivery system and create a business friendly environment. The biggest example is the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, which aims to provide a comprehensive and exhaustive code for the insolvency resolution of corporate entities, partnerships and sole proprietorships. The Code was enacted to provide for a speedy and efficient resolution of the claims of unpaid creditors. Other examples include the opening of Jan Dhan accounts and recapitalisation of banks. Statistical data reveals that, in public sector banks, private sector banks and foreign banks, the gross non-performing assets to total advances ratios stands at 9.39%, 2.90% and 4.26% in the financial year 2016.[8] If the banks are not being paid by their debtors, the former in turn may not be able to perform their obligations; therefore arises the problem of trust in the banking system at large. Further, only secured credit dominates the credit market in the country; therefore, the credit analysis of the business prospects of the firm has shrivelled.[9] Hence, it has become important for the government to introduce comprehensive reforms in the banking system. Accordingly, the present Bill enables resolution of banks- which are on the verge of failure with respect to payment of their obligation- by providing for a framework of resolving the risk of failure of banks to pay their obligations. Concerns over the Bail-In Provision Section 52 of the Bill provides for bail-in as a method for resolution of banks. A bail-in provision may provide for any or a combination of the following: (a) cancelling of the liability of the bank; (b) modification of the form of liability owed by a covered service provider; (c) provision that a contract or service under which a covered service provider has a liability is to be treated as if a specified right has been provided under the contract.[10] The Corporation shall specify the liability or the class of liabilities that may be subject to a bail in. The provisions of this section shall not apply to deposits to the extent they have been insured,[11] and shall not cover any liability owed to workmen including pension.[12] Further, it is to be noted that the definition of deposit in the Bill does not include deposit made by the Government of India or any state government or foreign government, though the provisions may apply to any liability created under a contract with the three above-mentioned entities. Whenever the Corporation invokes a bail-in provision, a report regarding the bail-in stating the need for the bail-in and the consequences of the bail-in must be sent to the Central Government.[13] Further, a copy of such report must be laid before both the Houses of Parliament.[14] The concerns regarding these provisions are that they have created higher risks for the depositors. Previous examples of bail-ins include the bail-in made under the resolution of the Bank of Cyprus in which the depositors had to face a 47.5% haircut in their deposits. ASSOCHAM has raised an argument that deposits such as fixed deposits and saving deposits must not be considered as similar to other liabilities owed by banks because this may reduce the trust of people in the banking system in light of the rising healthcare prices, among other things.[15] On the other hand, an argument in favour of the bail-in provision is that, in the absence of such provision, the government, in order to recapitalise a bank, may use the tax payers’ money, print more notes or borrow money, which will result in inflation and thus a reduction in the interest rates on the deposits.[16] Further, the system created through the Bill is a process-driven system which creates transparency, and bail-in is just one method which may be used for the resolution

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Key Changes under the FEMA 20, 2017 Regulations

Subsequent Effect of Moratorium: Jeopardising the Rights of an Innocent Litigant. [Kunal Kumar] The author is a fourth-year student at National Law University, Jodhpur. Introduction The Reserve Bank of India (“RBI”) vide notification No. FEMA 20(R)/ 2017-RB dated November 7, 2017 issued the Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Security by a Person Resident outside India) Regulations, 2017 (“FEMA 20”), which supersedes previous regulations namely the Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer and Issue of Security by a Person Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2000 (“FEMA 20/2000”), and the Foreign Exchange Management (Investments in Firms or Proprietary concern in India) Regulations, 2000 (“FEMA 24”). An attempt to analyse the key changes under the newly notified Regulations has been made through this article. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion announced the Consolidated FDI Policy 2017 (“FDI Policy”) on August 28, 2017. Of course, the changes under the FDI Policy have to be reflected under the FEMA 20, this essay will also discuss such changes when required. Key Changes Introduced Meaning of Foreign Investment The FEMA 20 provides that foreign investment means any investment made by a person resident outside India on a repatriable basis, thus making it clear that investment on non-repatriable basis is at par with domestic investment. Startups The FDI Policy 2017 allows startup[1] companies to: -issue convertible notes to residents outside India,[2] Convertible notes have been defined as instruments evidencing receipt of money as debt, which is repayable at the option of the holder, or which is convertible into equity shares;[3] and -issue equity or equity linked instruments or debt instruments to Foreign Venture Capital Investor (“FVCI”) against receipts of foreign remittance.[4] Note: An entity shall be considered as a ‘startup’ if[5] (a) it has not crossed five years from the date of its incorporation/registration; (b) its turnover for any of the financial years has not exceeded Rs. 25 crore, and (c) it is working towards innovation, development, deployment or commercialization of new products, processes or services driven by technology or intellectual property. Remittance against Pre-incorporation Expenses As per the 2016 FDI Policy, equity shares could be issued against pre-incorporation expenses, under the government route, subject to compliance with the conditions thereunder.[6] The 2017 FDI Policy has changed this requirement which is reflected under the FEMA 20. Therefore, subsidiaries in India wholly owned by non-resident entities, operating in a sector where 100% foreign investment is allowed in the automatic route and there are no FDI linked conditionalities, may issue equity shares, preference shares, convertible debentures or warrants against pre‑incorporation/ pre-operative expenses up to a limit of five percent of its authorized capital or USD 500,000 whichever is less, subject to conditions prescribed.[7] Note: However, this cannot be said to be a completely new provision under the FEMA 20 as this was introduced in the existing FEMA 20 through the eleventh amendment dated 24th October, 2017. ESOP to Directors FEMA 20 expressly allows an Indian company to issue employees’ stock option to its directors or directors of its holding company/ joint venture/ wholly owned overseas subsidiary/ subsidiaries who are resident outside India. Such company shall have to submit Form-ESOP to the Regional Office concerned of the Reserve Bank under whose jurisdiction the registered office of the company operates, within 30 days from the date of issue of employees’ stock option.[8] Reclassification of FPI Holding The total investment made by a SEBI registered foreign portfolio investor (FPI) in a listed company will be re-classified as FDI where it’s holding exceeds 10% of the paid-up capital or 10% of the paid-up value in respect of each series of instruments. Such a reclassification is required to be reported by way of Form FC-GPR.[9] Transfers by NRIs Transfer of capital instruments by a Non-Resident Indian (NRI) to a non-resident no longer requires RBI approval.[10] Earlier, as per regulation 9, FEMA 20/2000, a NRI was eligible to transfer the capital instruments only to a NRI or overseas corporate body, and if such capital instruments were to be transferred to a non resident, prior permission of RBI was mandatory as per regulation 10(B) of the FEMA 20/2000. Onus of Reporting FEMA 20/2000 laid the onus of submission of the form FC-TRS within the specified time on the transferor / transferee, resident in India.[11] The 2017 Regulations lays onus on the resident transferor/ transferee or the person resident outside India holding capital instruments on a non-repatriable basis, as the case may be.[12] In case of transfer under Regulation 10 (9), the onus of reporting shall be on the resident transferor/ transferee. Also, unlike the previous position, the new FEMA 20 allows for delayed reporting subject to the payment of fees to be decided by the RBI in consultation with the central government.[13] This is a significant change as FEMA 20/2000 did not provide anything on delayed filing, because of which the same would be deemed as contravention and required compounding by the RBI. Time Limit for Issue of Capital Instruments The FEMA 20/2000 mandated issuance within 180 days from receipt of inward remittance.[14] However, the Companies Act, 2013 provides for allotment of securities within 60 days of receipt of application money or advance for such securities.[15] FEMA 20 now provides that capital instruments shall be issued to the person resident outside India making such investment within sixty days from the date of receipt of the consideration,[16] aligning the requirement to issue capital instruments with Act, 2013. Further, proviso to para 2 (3) of Schedule 1 to FEMA 20 provides that prior approval of RBI will be required for payment of interest in case of any delay in refund of the amount. Conclusion The new Regulations have been enacted to maintain consistency with the related legislations. With the new Regulations coming, it is hoped that the governance of transfer of securities by non-residents will be eased. [1] Paragraph (“para”) 3.2.6 of the Consolidated FDI Policy 2017. [2] As per the conditions under para 3.2.6 of the FDI Policy and Regulation 8, FEMA 20. [3] Regulation 2(vi), FEMA 20. [4] Regulation 5(7) and Para 1(1)(b) of

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Subsequent Effect of Moratorium: Jeopardising the Rights of an Innocent Litigant

Subsequent Effect of Moratorium: Jeopardising the Rights of an Innocent Litigant. [Vishal Hablani] The author is a second-year student at West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata. He may be reached at vishalhablani@nujs.edu. On 11th December, 2017, the High Court of Delhi held that moratorium under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“Code”) would not be applicable to proceedings beneficial to the concerned corporate debtor. However, in case the decree is passed against the corporate debtor, the enforceability of such decree would be covered by the moratorium commenced earlier under section 14(1)(a) of the Code. The write-up aims to critique the judgement passed in the matter of Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd. v. Jyoti Structures Ltd. In the said case, a financial creditor filed an application under section 7 of the Code against the respondent company. However, when the application was filed, proceeding under section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 for setting aside the arbitral award passed in favour of the respondent was already pending. The question before the High Court, therefore, was whether the proceeding under section 34 ought to be stayed by virtue of section 14(1)(a) of the Code. The respondent submitted that before suspending the proceedings, the nature thereof must be taken into consideration. If proceedings are in favour of the corporate debtor, granting a stay would defeat its efforts to recover money. Moreover, stay of such a nature would not fall in the embargo of section 14(1)(a). The Court in the instant case had to decide whether the term “proceedings” used in the said section could be read in such a way so as to include “all legal proceedings”, or it should be read restrictively to cover only a specific type of legal proceeding viz., “debt recovery action” which may diminish debtor’s assets during the insolvency resolution period. It becomes pertinent here to discuss the relevant provision in the Code. xxx Moratorium – (1) Subject to provisions of sub-sections (2) and (3), on the insolvency commencement date, the Adjudicating Authority shall by order declare moratorium for prohibiting all of the following, namely:— (a) the institution of suits or continuation of pending suits or proceedings against the corporate debtor including execution of any judgment, decree or order in any court of law, tribunal, arbitration panel or other authority; xxx The Court placed reliance on Canara Bank v. Deccan Chronicle Holdings Limited to hold that since the word “proceedings” under the provision is not preceded by the word “all”, the provisions of moratorium would not apply to all the proceedings against the corporate debtor. The object of the Code was interpreted and the view was taken that moratorium is implemented with the objective of protecting the assets of the corporate debtor from dissipation. If the proceedings are suspended, it would extend the non-executability of the award which would add to the woes of the debtor. The Court opined that section 14 of the Code would be inapplicable to proceedings which are beneficial for the corporate debtor, as the conclusion of these proceedings would not have any impact over the assets during the insolvency resolution process. Reliance was placed on the report of the Bankruptcy Law Reforms Committee, and it was construed that the objective behind the moratorium is to protect the assets of the corporate debtor from additional stress. Interestingly, the judgment provided that if a counter claim is allowed against the corporate debtor, section 14(1)(a) would come into play and the decree then would not be executed against the corporate debtor. The judgment passed by the Delhi High Court seems to be fallacious, for the Court failed to take into consideration the situation that, if the proceedings are continued and counter claim against the corporate debtor admitted, then, by the effect of this judgement, it would then become impossible for the innocent litigant to enforce the decree against the Corporate Debtor by the subsequent effect of the moratorium. This raises various questions which the Court failed to answer: Is it possible for the litigant then to enforce the decree subsequently against the firm, or an individual whose resolution plan has been accepted, after the moratorium ceases to have the effect, provided the case was still pending while the claims against the corporate debtor were being invited before the acceptance of such resolution plan?   What recourse would be available to this litigant, in case the Adjudicating Authority passes an order for liquidation of corporate debtor, provided the case was still pending while the claims against the corporate debtor were being invited before passing of such order?  The Code provides for completion of resolution proceedings within 180 days, subject to extension for a period of 90 days. However, no statutory time limit has been prescribed for the adjudication of a suit pending before conventional courts. This gives rise to a critical question: What if the resolution proceedings are completed against the corporate debtor and the suit against him is still pending before the Court? Would the suit be automatically terminated then? In this scenario, rights of both the parties to the suit would be jeopardised, and the arbitral award would be rendered useless. There might also be a situation where the court decides the suit in favour of the corporate debtor after the acceptance of resolution plan, or passes an order for liquidation of the corporate debtor. This also gives rise to certain critical questions: Would the firm or an individual whose resolution plan has been accepted have the locus standi for the enforcement of the arbitral award in question?​ If the Adjudicating Authority approves the liquidation of corporate debtor, can the liquidator then enforce the arbitral award against the party which has lost the suit? The author hopes that the questions presented hereinabove would soon be answered by an appropriate forum so as to fill the vacuum.

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