Author name: CBCL

Expostulating SEBI’s Endeavour to incorporate Material Events into the Definition of UPSI: Addressing the Potential Pitfalls

[By Mainak Mukherjee] The author is a student of National Law University and Judicial Academy, Assam.   Introduction The Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI), through its Consultation Paper dated May 18, 2023, has proposed an amendment to the definition of Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI) as outlined in the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 (PIT). This proposed amendment seeks to incorporate the term “material events” following Regulation 30 of the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (LODR) within the existing definition of UPSI as provided under Regulation 2(1)(n) of the PIT Regulations. This article explores how bringing ‘material events’ under the purview of UPSI could lead to increased confusion in the market, potentially contradicting the initial goal of implementing the amendment. Understanding UPSI and ‘material event’ under SEBI Regulations Before delving into this analysis, it is pertinent to understand the definition of UPSI and Regulation 30 of LODR. SEBI has defined UPSI in the matter of Biocon Limited. The watchdog has said that a host of factors determine if a UPSI exists; these are the nature of the transaction; progress and negotiation; increasing probability of the transaction, and so on. Therefore, for each unique matter, the entire facts and circumstances of the matter must be examined without giving any undue weightage to any one aspect before arriving at a conclusion on the existence of UPSI. On the other hand, Regulation 30 of the LODR necessitates that listed companies promptly disclose all material events to the stock exchanges within 24 hours of the occurrence of such events. Material events encompass a range of significant occurrences, including acquisitions, potential investments, changes in management, and financial results. These events have the potential to impact the company’s share price significantly. Nevertheless, despite their impact, these events are not classified as UPSI but are announced through press releases. In its Consultation Paper, SEBI refers to a study conducted between January 2021 and September 2022, wherein 1,100 press releases issued by 100 listed companies were examined. The study revealed that in 227 instances, the index experienced price movements exceeding 2%. However, out of these 227 instances, only 209 press releases were not categorized as UPSI by the respective companies. Although, this demonstrates the need for SEBI to address this issue quickly; the question remains: Can UPSI under PIT and material events under LODR go hand-in-hand? Exploring the relationship between UPSI and ‘material events’ Sub-regulation 2 of Regulation 30 of LODR states that events specified under Para A of Part A of Schedule III are deemed material events, and all listed entities must disclose such events. This indicates that the LODR has a deeming fiction in play, and one must not refer to external factors to determine the necessity of disclosure. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Smt. Sudha Rani Garg v. Sri Jagdish Kumar[1] has ruled that the usage of the word “deemed” in legislation expresses the legislative intent of creating fiction. On the other hand, the definition of UPSI outlines two main elements; firstly, the information should not be generally available, and secondly, the information, on becoming generally available, is like to affect the price of the securities materially. Interestingly, the definition further states that UPSI shall ‘ordinarily include, but not be restricted to…’ followed by certain aspects. The presence of the term “ordinarily” indicates that the list is non-exhaustive and that there could be information not covered by the list, which may be UPSI. This shows that the concept of “deemed” is absent in the definition of UPSI. The most crucial test for UPSI is whether the information will likely affect the price if it becomes generally available materially. This test is similar to the “Vendibility Test” of marketability formulated by the Supreme Court in Union of India v. Delhi Cloth and General Mills Company Limited. In this case, the apex court, while determining the existence of a market, stated that the presence of an actual market containing buyers and sellers should not be considered; instead, it should consider the aspect: whether a market exists or not. Similarly, when it comes to UPSI, the actual focus is not on the actual impact of securities’ prices but on the likelihood of such information materially affecting the price of securities upon becoming generally available. Moving on, Regulation 30(4) of LODR states the different criteria a company should consider for determining the materiality of information and events. Further, sub-clause (b) of sub-regulation 4 states that “the omission of an event or information is likely to result in a significant market reaction if the said omission came to light at a later date”. This throws light on the fact that there is a likelihood that such information will result in a market reaction if the said omission gets disclosed at a later date. Now reading the definition of UPSI and interconnecting it with Regulation 30 tells us that there could be situations where a piece of information which is deemed material under LODR can also be considered as a UPSI if it triggers materiality based on LODR Regulations 30(4)(b) – where a failure to disclose the information can create a market reaction when later revealed. Market reaction refers to interference with the market, which affects the demand, supply, and price. Therefore, a common thread exists between SEBI’s PIT Regulations and LODR Regulations, particularly the definition of UPSI and Regulation 30. Conversely, although listed in Para A, every material information under Regulation 30 is not a UPSI because the test for UPSI is one, whereas the test in LODR, particularly Regulation 30(4)(b), is three-fold. The test for UPSI is based on likelihood; that is, there must be a likelihood of information which can materially affect the price, so if this parameter is met, the information qualifies as material information as well as UPSI. To put it in simpler terms, since every UPSI will materially impact the price and likely result in a significant market reaction, it would be considered “material” under LODR. This means that every UPSI can be called material,

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IBC vis-a-vis the Hands-off Doctrine in the Moser Baer Case

[By Ansruta Debnath and Shubham Singh] The authors are students of National Law University Odisha.   INTRODUCTION In the recent case of Moser Baer Karamchari Union Thr. President Mahesh Chand Sharma and Ors. v. Union of India, the court has used the doctrine of hands-off to refuse to interfere with the waterfall mechanism in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“IBC”) which it categorised as an economic legislation. This doctrine is a manifestation of the principle of separation of powers and has originated in the United States, essentially laying down that courts should not interfere in the executive’s work. BACKGROUND In the Moser Baer case, the constitutional validity of Section 327(7) of the Companies Act, 2013 was challenged because it was an overriding provision that cancelled the effects of Section 326 and 327 when kicked in. Section 326 and 327 would not apply at the time of liquidation, Section 53 of IBC would and that proposes a waterfall mechanism which proposes a different order of priority for distribution of proceeds. According to Sections 326 and 327, payments of worker’s dues, revenues, taxes and cesses due to the Union would have had priority but under Section 53, the order of priority is secured financial creditors, insecure financial creditors, government dues and finally, operational dues. In this case, workers’ dues come under operational creditors. This apparent dichotomy was challenged in this case because it was violative of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. HANDS-OFF BY INDIAN COURTS IN LIGHT OF IBC Economic legislations are laws and regulations on various aspects of economic activity. These legislations aim to promote economic growth, protect consumer rights, ensure fair competition, regulate financial systems and maintain stability in the economy. While the Indian Judiciary is well known for its activist role when it comes to the rights of Indian citizens, a trend of non-interference has been seen in the case of so-called “economic legislations”. IBC is an economic legislation. The Moser Baer petition involved the validity of certain provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. The Supreme Court recognized that IBC is primarily economic legislation and that the judiciary should not unilaterally give judgements that would affect its intricacies without legislative consensus. The Court acknowledged IBC’s impact on secured creditors and financial institutions, stressing the importance of their economic stability for the general public and the national economy. It was stated that employment opportunities, economic growth, and investments depend on IBC’s provisions. Since the IBC was the result of an organic evolution of law and extensive consultation, the prescribed waterfall mechanism should not be interfered with. A key case which highlights the implementation of the hands-off doctrine vis-a-vis IBC is  Swiss Ribbons Private Limited and Anr. v. Union of India and Ors. This case yet again involved a challenge to IBC by operational creditors, alleging discrimination. The Court acknowledged that legislators consider practical and administrative factors and engage in experimentation when formulating such laws. Therefore, a rigid doctrinaire approach should be avoided. This principle, apart from IBC, has been used for economic policies as well. The Supreme Court of India, relying on multiple prior judgements have categorically stated that “it is neither the domain of courts nor the scope of judicial review to embark on whether a particular public policy is wise”. Courts have time and again advised caution when it comes to economic and fiscal regulatory matters since they are not experts in those matters. The only way the same can be struck is if they are manifestly arbitrary and contrary to any law. A FAIR PLAY BY THE JUDICIARY OR A MISSTEP? Adjudicating on legality instead of soundness or wise ness of a law or policy seems to be the appropriate job for the judiciary. However, this is quite a difficult line to tread upon. The judicial hands-off doctrine is a manifestation of the principle of judicial restraint, which needs to be exercised while treading that line. By limiting judicial intervention, the doctrine upholds the integrity of this separation and fosters a healthy balance of power. It is also observed whenever fundamental rights and principles are affected; the court has always intervened in the legislature. India, however, does not follow a strict separation of powers as in the United States. Instead, there is a “broad separation of powers”. The term “broad” implies that the organs are to not interfere in the core functions of each other but a general overlap among each other is permissible. The judiciary’s involvement in the structuration of laws primarily occurs to safeguard the Constitution, most importantly fundamental rights contained therein. It is, however, interesting to note that in all the above-mentioned cases there was one common argument i.e., a violation of a fundamental right. Yet, the judiciary chose to take a hands-off approach and not interfere. Concerning fundamental rights, the court has consistently opined that a legislation cannot be deemed manifestly arbitrary if it explicitly addresses certain provisions, even if it looks like a violation of some rights of an individual. This standpoint was evident in the case of Moser Baer, wherein the court held that the Preferential Payments provision in the Companies Act would no longer be applicable once the liquidation process of a company has been initiated, as the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code of 2016 now governs the procedures related to liquidation. THE ULTIMATE CONUNDRUM Judiciary intervening in the functioning of legislations are aplenty. With respect to economic legislations like IBC specifically, the count is comparatively low as there have been incidents when the courts have given judgements that have led to negative consequences. A prominent case in this regard is State Tax Officer v. Rainbow Papers Limited, in which the courts categorised government dues as secured creditors if they have security thus, going against  the provisions of IBC and creating quite a quandary. Why a hands-off approach is warranted when it comes to statutes like IBC can be attributed to India being a growing economic market. The dynamic nature of economic activities makes the intent

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Age of Aquarius: SEBI’s New Age Reforms For AIFs

[By Riva Khan] The author is a student of Hidayatullah National Law University.   INTRODUCTION SEBI has unveiled its proposed regulatory reforms for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) in India through five consultation papers released on February 3, 2023. Seeking public feedback, these papers outline the next level of reforms SEBI is planning for AIFs. The proposed changes include enhanced regulatory norms that aim to improve investor protection and promote the growth of the AIF industry in India. If the proposals outlined in the consultation papers are adopted, they have the potential to trigger a significant transformation in the AIF industry, particularly in terms of improving transparency and facilitating greater transferability for investors. AN ANALYSIS OF THE SAME IS GIVEN BELOW Currently, according to Regulation 4(g) of SEBI AIF Regulations, at least one key managerial person of a Manager of the AIF must have “adequate experience” in managing pools of assets or wealth or portfolio management for a period of five years. However, it is being proposed that this requirement be substituted with the condition that the key investment team and the compliance officer of the Manager of the AIF must acquire relevant certification from an institution that has been notified by SEBI. The proposed alteration, which aims to replace the current prerequisite of possessing five years of experience with a certification requirement, is intended to ensure that the vital managerial personnel of an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) possess the requisite knowledge and skills to efficiently handle the assets of the AIF. As per the proposed modification, the vital investment team and the compliance officer of the Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)’s manager would be mandated to obtain appropriate certification from an institution that has been notified by SEBI. This certification would indicate that the individuals have undergone training and have acquired the necessary knowledge and skills to manage the assets of the AIF. The advantage of this proposed change is that it would create a level playing field for all AIF managers. Currently, the requirement of five years of experience can act as a barrier to entry for new players in the market. However, with the certification requirement, new players can also enter the market, provided they meet the certification criteria. Additionally, the certification requirement would ensure that the key managerial personnel of an AIF have a standardized level of knowledge and skills, which would enhance the overall professionalism and credibility of the industry. However, there could be some concerns with this proposed change. For instance, some investors might prefer experienced managers over certified managers. Moreover, the certification process might not adequately capture the practical knowledge and experience required to manage an AIF’s assets effectively. At present, an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) is required to seek the agreement of 75% of its investors (based on the value of their investments) prior to making any investments in the associates or units of AIFs managed or sponsored by its Manager, Sponsor, or their associates. However, SEBI has proposed to expand this requirement to cover the buying and selling of investments from or to associates, including schemes of AIFs managed or sponsored by the Manager, Sponsor, or their associates. In other words, the AIF must also seek the approval of 75% of its investors (by the value of their investments) for such transactions. The reform claims that the suggested changes to the AIF Regulations are consistent with the Regulations’ spirit and will enhance their scope in identifying and dealing with conflicts of interest in a more efficient manner. However, without further context or specific details, it is difficult to evaluate the extent to which these changes will achieve their intended goals. Additionally, it is crucial to assess whether the proposed amendments address the most significant conflicts of interest issues in the AIF industry and whether they are enforceable and practical to implement. Despite the registration of more than 1000 Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) with SEBI, only a handful have adhered to the stipulated procedure established by CDSL and NSDL for the dematerialization of their units. To ensure compliance across the board, SEBI has suggested that all AIFs should be required to dematerialise their units. By April 01, 2024, it will be mandatory for all AIF schemes with a corpus of more than INR 500 crore to dematerialise their units. At present, despite the registration of more than 1000 Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) with SEBI, only a small number have fulfilled the procedure for the dematerialization of their units as per the protocols established by CDSL and NSDL. To ensure consistency and conformity, SEBI is proposing to make the dematerialization of AIF units obligatory. Starting from April 01, 2024, it will be mandatory for all Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) schemes that have a fund size exceeding INR 500 crore to convert their units into dematerialized form. SEBI has identified potential issues with double payment and mis-selling in AIF investments made through intermediaries such as placement agents or distributors. To address these concerns, SEBI has proposed two solutions: (a) A new requirement has been put in place for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to provide investors with the option of a direct plan that does not involve any distribution or placement fees. This direct plan will offer investors a higher number of units compared to other investment plans. It is required that all investors, irrespective of their investment mode, receive an equivalent Net Asset Value (NAV) for their units. Furthermore, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are accountable for directing investors who use intermediaries that levy fees towards the direct plan. (b) All Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are permitted to levy a placement or distribution fee on investors on a recurring basis. Nonetheless, for Category I and II AIFs, intermediaries may be paid an upfront amount of a greater proportion of the total distribution fee (equal to one-third of the present value) in the initial year. SEBI has proposed two measures to tackle the issue of mis-selling and double payment that may occur when investors invest in Alternative

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Revised Safe Deposit Instructions by RBI: Analysing the Liability Clause

[By Mansi Verma] The author is a student of Gujarat National Law University.   Introduction Bank locker facilities continue to hold the popularity of bank’s customers as a secured safety vault guarded by the bank’s infrastructure. They keep the customer’s valuables, and any changes in such facilities’ operation directly impact the hirer. In this blog, the author primarily seeks to analyse how the new liability clause recently implemented by virtue of Reserve Bank of India (“RBI”) Locker facilities/Safe Deposit facility guidelines would affect the Banker Customer relationship vis a vis the position prior to the insertion of such a clause and what are the issues and challenges associated with the enforcement of the clause while proposing solutions for the benefit of the customers of a bank. RBI’s Safe Deposit Locker instructions Apart from performing their core functions of receiving money on deposit for the purposes of lending, commercial banks also perform several other ancillary functions in addition to their core functions, which include Agency Services and General Utility Services. The Safe Deposits Vaults, Safety Lockers or Bank Lockers form a part of a commercial bank’s General Utility Services. RBI, as the primal monetary authority of the nation, has powers under sections 35A, 45ZC and 45ZF of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 Act read with Section 56 of the same Act to issue binding directions to the banking companies in the public interest. In exercising such powers, RBI issued the new binding Instructions on Safe deposit vaults (“revised instructions”), making the banks liable in case of loss of items placed in the locker under certain circumstances. Part VII of the revised instructions lays down the compensation policy and liability for Banks in cases of natural calamities, and Instruction Number 7.2 lays down “bank’s liability in events like fire, theft, burglary, dacoity, robbery, building collapse or in case of fraud committed by the employees of the bank”. The revised instructions entrust the liability  of  the bank to the tune of compensation if the events occur due to the bank’s own negligence with no fault on the part of the customer. When the events mentioned in instruction number 7.2 occur, the bank shall pay compensation amounting to 100 times the prevailing annual rent of the safe deposit locker. In light of the revised instructions, a timeline till 1 January 2023 was specified for the banks to renew their locker agreements with the existing customers incorporating the liability clause and ensuring the inclusion of fair terms. The Liability Clause: Issues and Challenges Including this clause in the new locker agreement is a promising provision in that it provides recourse to law for the customers availing the facility. However, long waiting lists make it difficult for the common man to avail the locker facilities and put their valuables in safe custody. In this regard, the Banks are undoubtedly in an advantageous position considering the stringent terms and conditions a customer must adhere to in the memorandum of letting. In this way, including the liability clause is a progressive step towards ensuring transparency and enhanced locker security standards. Examining the nuances of the provision, it is clear that the provision opens the legal avenues for the grant of relief to a   helpless locker holder who suffered the loss of items and had no remedy against redeeming the cost of the locker items because prior to the coming of the guidelines, the locker agreement contained a waiver of liability clause which ensured that the bank would not incur any liability to insure them. The current position of law requires the remedy to be sought in the court of law. The provision requires that the events mentioned in the provision must occur on the premises of the banks due to their own negligence, shortcomings or any act of omission or commission. This puts the burden of proof of negligence on the part of banks upon the customers. The Distorted Balance of power There is strong jurisprudence to show that it has been extremely difficult for the complainant customers to show knowledge on the part of the banks with respect to the contents stored in the locker as well as negligence on the part of the banks as it is standard industry practice for the banks to disclaim liability for the loss of goods kept in the locker. The cases of Mohinder Singh Nanda v. Bank of Maharashtra and Atul Mehra v. Bank of India are the most appropriate cases to show the distorted balance of power. In both these cases, the appellants could not prove knowledge of locker contents on the part of the respondent banks and could also not show the presence of the goods inside the locker. Hence even when there was a breach of duty on the part of the banks to take reasonable care of the goods, they could not be entrusted with the liability of the missing articles of the locker. The courts undoubtedly took a liberal route by lowering the threshold of proof for the customers, but that provided some respite. The national commission in Pune Zilla Madyawarti Sahakari Bank Limited v. Ashok Bayaji Ghogare even held that an affidavit of the locker holder, if not impeached by cross-examination can be accepted to prove the locker contents. However, even this was not very helpful as compelling evidence of the bank’s negligence and knowledge has to be shown by the customer claiming compensation. The issue of disparate positions taken by the banks regarding their relationship with the customer with respect to the contents of the locker was one of the astute observations made by the Competition Commission of India in the case of Amitabh Dasgupta v United Bank of India (Amitabh Das Gupta). The basis of making such an observation was non-uniform practices followed while assigning liabilities by commercial banks. The banks exhibited non-uniformity as some of them considered the facts and circumstances surrounding the loss of goods to assume liability, some strictly adhered to the conditions set out in the memorandum

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Admission of Guilt in Lesser Penalty Applications. A choice or a Necessity?

[By Sehaj Mahajan] The author is a student of Bharati Vidyapeeth University, New Delhi.   Introduction Recently, the Indian leniency regime has displayed a fair bit of uncertainty on a particular proposition i.e. Whether or not an admission of guilt is necessary in case of a lesser penalty application. On 27 June 2017, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) in Suo Motu Case No. 06 of 2017 (Beer Cartel case) received a Lesser Penalty application filed by Anheuser-Busch InBev SA/NV (AB InBev), containing vital disclosures of cartelisation among five major beer manufacturers. AB InBev, along with all the other lesser penalty applicants, was granted a reduction in penalty to be paid to the regulator. The order of the CCI, which held four of the five beer manufacturers guilty of cartel activity, was challenged before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT). The appellants argued that a leniency applicant is not sufficient to establish guilt. The NCLAT maintained that a lesser penalty application is considered to be an admission of guilt. Penning down the judgment, Justice Rakesh Kumar stated that enterprises cannot be allowed to “approbate and reprobate simultaneously”, which confirms that enterprises could not be allowed to seek the benefit of a lesser penalty and deny the existence of a cartel. The NCLAT’s analysis drew a comparative framework and analogized the leniency regime with plea bargaining in criminal law. A plea bargaining agreement, essentially involves the accused admitting to the crime in exchange for a more lenient sentence. In their view, just as a plea bargaining agreement, a lesser penalty application also establishes guilt purely on the basis of the application being presented to the regulator. If we boil this down to a grassroots level, a reduction in penalty can only be granted once the party has either admitted wrongdoing, or malfeasance has been established. Hence, the element of autogenous assistance in uncovering proof of cartel activity cannot be disregarded. Regime in India As far as the Indian regime is concerned, moving a lesser penalty application is not considered ipso facto evidence of cartelisation. Point (a) of Regulation 4 of the CCI Lesser Penalty Regulations 2009 (Lesser Penalty rules) allows the CCI to make only a prima facie assumption of cartelisation. Under Point 1(A) of Regulation 3 of the Lesser Penalty rules, an applicant is required to cease all participation in a cartel at the time of filing a lesser penalty application. This can be construed as an admission of participation in cartel activity and of infringement of Section 3(3) of the Competition Act, 2002. The precarious nature of the lesser penalty regime is evident in the lack of clarity on three things – Whether admission of guilt is a condition precedent to furnish a lesser penalty application. Whether an applicant can be found innocent of any wrongdoing, despite filing a lesser penalty application. Whether the existence of a cartel or participation in it, can be presumed solely on the basis of a lesser penalty application.  As far as the existence of a cartel is concerned, the order of the NCLAT in the Beer Cartel appeal has specifically stipulated that the existence of a cartel is assumed once a whistle-blower comes forward. But, in the past, applicants have been exonerated, despite coming forward and making material disclosures. In Suo Motu Case No. 01 of 2017 (Flashlights case), it was established that the parties had exchanged sales data, production data and price information. This was, however, not considered sufficient to amount to a violation of Section 3(3)(a) which talks about the determination of sales or purchase prices by entities engaged in identical trades. The CCI, in its observations, stated that there was no cogent evidence to show that the actions of the parties resulted in determining sale prices. No increase in the prices of flashlights in the markets also contributed to CCI’s decision in the concerned case. This clearly demonstrates that despite assuming the position of a lesser penalty applicant, enterprises and individuals can be absolved. In consonance with the Flashlights case, the Beer Cartel case charted a similar path. Three lesser penalty applicants -, AB InBev (Applicant Number 1),  United Breweries Ltd (Applicant Number 2) and Carlsberg India Pvt Ltd (Applicant Number 3) were held guilty. But, it is important to point out that their guilt is established through evidence unearthed during the DG investigation stage. It is also of consequence that Crown Beers India Pvt Ltd, joint lesser penalty applicant with AB InBev, was not found guilty of any wrongdoing. The judgment of the CCI in the Beer Cartel case inadvertently reaffirmed the precedent in the Flashlights case. In both cases, enterprises were found innocent despite being lesser penalty applicants. If consistency in adjudication is material, then the judgment of the NCLAT can be considered an outlier. Provided the NCLAT decision is to be considered bereft of any legal flaw, then a lesser penalty applicant has admitted the existence of a cartel and their participation in it, by petitioning for a lesser penalty. If the precedent set in the Flashlights case and the Beer Cartel case is considered supreme, then the lesser penalty application has to be followed up with more potent evidence to pronounce the parties guilty. If the NCLAT order is to prevail, the CCI will have to change its approach towards dealing with cartel cases in the future. Contemporary Jurisdictions In the United Kingdom, the Competition and Markets Authority has provided detailed guidelines for leniency applicants, both corporate and individual. Applications are only considered once the applicant enterprise submits an admission of their guilt in cartel activity. Individual applicants must admit participation in the cartel offence under Section 188 of the Enterprise Act, 2002. In the United States, the Department of Justice and the Federal Trade Commission jointly administer the realm of Competition Law enforcement. The Antitrust Division Leniency Policy and Procedures provide procedural guidelines to leniency applicants, for antitrust violations in the United States. These rules provide incentives for corporations and individuals to self-report antitrust

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Implications of the SAT’s Ruling on Disclosure-Based Regulations

[By Yuvraj Sharma] The author is a student of School of Law, Narsee Monjee Institute of Management and Studies, Hyderabad.   Introduction In a nine-page ruling, the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) criticises SEBI’s approach to disclosure-based laws, which allows corporations that have committed wrongdoing to be exonerated if they gain post-facto approval from their shareholders. This ruling creates a problematic precedent by allowing businesses to seek approval for any conduct, regardless of its legality, and by tolerating wrongdoing by strong corporate clients. This precedent could be used by the legal profession to support unlawful behaviour. Investors, who will be affected by the decision, are mostly in the dark about it. In the Terrascope Ventures Limited (“Company”) case, which resulted in this choice, the business used the money for unlawful reasons that were later approved by shareholders. The Tribunal rejected SEBI’s decision and upheld the legality of a director’s violation of duty, contradicting SEBI’s contention that such post-facto validation for already committed acts is unlawful. The article talks about the recent decision by India’s SAT to let businesses to “ratify” director misconduct after the fact, despite the fact that the Companies Act of 2013 does not have any such a provision. The article underlines the worries of legal and financial professionals who think that such a clause may be simply misused and might perhaps put the interests of minority shareholders in danger. Additionally, there are no safeguards in place to guarantee that post-facto ratification is not abused. Since the SAT decision has an impact on the fundamentals of disclosure-based regulation in India, experts are urging SEBI to file an appeal and start a board discussion on the matter. Factual Matrix of the case Terrascope Venture vs. SEBI Terrascope Ventures Limited (“Company”) sought and gained shareholder permission for a preferential offer of 63,50,000 shares in October 2012, with the intention to use the money for operational expenses, including capital purchases., marketing, working capital, and international expansion. However, the company made share purchases and loan and advance payments to 19 entities named in the SEBI order rather than using the funds for the approved purposes. At their 2017 Annual General Meeting (AGM) in September, Terrascope Ventures Limited’s shareholders overwhelmingly approved a special resolution. The resolution approved spending the money on something that was not even close to what it was approved for during the preference issue. Five years after the funds were collected, they were finally ratified. After receiving a show-cause notice from SEBI’s Adjudicating officer in 2018, Terrascope Ventures Limited was fined in April 2020. During this time, Terrascope argued before SEBI’s AO that in 2014, they had expanded their object clause to include financing, investment, and share trading via a special resolution. They contended that the modified object clause was followed by allocating some of the proceeds from the preferential offering. What is the Principle of Disclosure & Disclosure base regulations? The principle of disclosure is basically an accounting rule that requires companies to disclose any of the information which materially impacts their financial results or financial position. This principle usually promotes the financial market transparency, it lowers the risk of fraud and it also protects the investors and analysts from the overabundance of irrelevant information. It can also be applied in commercial law to make sure that parties to a business transaction reveal all relevant facts prior to the completion of the deal. In 1992, India’s stock market became subject to disclosure-based regulation. The screening process for investors already includes sifting through annual reports, disclosures to stock exchanges, and offer paperwork, all of which are required by the listing agreement. All of these warnings are useless since that the SAT allows for ‘ratification’ by shareholders after the fact, long after the misappropriation of cash or questionable conduct has already taken place. The implications for initial public offerings (IPOs) are dire, as investors in high-profile technology businesses are already seeing significant losses. The Court needs to Restates Its Point of Judgement Ratification is defined and the rights of the parties and the consequences of ratification are spelt out in Section 196 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872. This approach only applies to contracts that can be voided, not those that are invalid or flawed from the beginning. Section 197 of the Act states that ratification may be communicated explicitly or implicitly by the conduct of the person for whom the Act is performed. However, if the ratification is made by someone with a materially flawed understanding of the relevant facts, it will be null and void as per Section 198 of the Act. In addition, per Section 198, a person’s consent to a transaction includes his knowledge of any illegal activity conducted on his behalf. The significance of communicating a contract’s confirmation may become clear in future dealings. While ratification is permitted under the Indian Companies Act, it is unclear whether or not acts that breach the duty of care can be ratified under the law. However, the Bombay High Court has ruled that board members cannot rely on this doctrine to justify a breach if they are the only shareholders in the company. The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) in Mumbai overlooked the principle’s lack of statutory and judicial support. The failure to codify the notion of ratification suggests that legislators intended to bar shareholders from relieving directors of culpability by ratifying their actions. Directors may try to rationalise illegal behaviour by relying on the ratification concept, which was lifted wholely from English law without being adapted to Indian conditions. Without proper adjustments, imports of this nature are doomed to fail. The Act lacks statutory provisions that would allow for legal ratification, whereas other common law jurisdictions have established procedures for ratification. There could be serious consequences if foreign doctrines were imported into Indian law without the necessary legal systems or social structures. Conclusion  Regardless of the lack of such a provision in the Companies Act of 2013, the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) of India has recently ruled that companies

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Enhancing M&A Efficiency: India’s Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023

[By Aisha Singh] The author is a student of Chanakya National Law University (CNLU), Patna.   Introduction The Indian President’s approval of the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023, is set to bring significant changes to the merger review procedure employed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI). With amendments aimed at simplifying the notification process, establishing deal value thresholds, and shortening the review window, this new legislation promises to reshape the landscape of mergers and acquisitions (M&As) in the country. One of the ground-breaking features introduced by the Amendment Act is the concept of “deemed approval”. According to this provision, the acquisition would be deemed authorised if the CCI fails to reach a prima facie conclusion within 30 calendar days (as opposed to the prior 30 working days) about whether an M&A transaction is likely to raise competition issues in India. This means that parties involved in the transaction can proceed with closing it without waiting for a formal CCI approval order. Furthermore, the overall review period has been reduced from 210 calendar days to 150 calendar days, further streamlining the process. This move has been widely hailed as a positive step forward for M&As in India, addressing a long-standing gap in the Competition Act, 2002, which did not provide any implications or consequences if the CCI failed to provide its view within the prescribed timeline. With the introduction of the “deemed approval” provision, the Amendment Act seeks to fill this legal vacuum, bringing clarity and certainty to the merger review process. Benefit to Global Deals The adoption of a 30-calendar day review timeline aligns India’s merger review process with more mature jurisdictions, such as that of the European Union (EU), USA & Canada. This harmonization fosters a more efficient and consistent approach to M&A transactions. The streamlined timeline reduces uncertainty, enhances deal certainty, and expedites transaction closures. It creates a favourable investment environment, attracting foreign investors and stimulating economic growth. Additionally, the accelerated pace of transactions benefits global deals involving multiple jurisdictions, ensuring timely completion. Overall, this strategic alignment positions India as an attractive destination for domestic and international mergers and acquisitions. Thus, this strategic move is expected to yield substantial benefits for global deals, fostering a harmonized and efficient approach to M&A transactions. This progressive step demonstrates the Indian competition watchdog’s commitment to aligning its practices with those of mature jurisdictions such as the EU. In the European Union, the European Commission operates under a 25-working day timeline to conduct the Phase I review of a transaction and make a decision. Similarly, in both the United States and Canada, merger transactions typically undergo an initial waiting period of 30 calendar days. This waiting period serves as a crucial window for regulatory authorities to review proposed mergers and evaluate potential competition concerns. The streamlined review timeline holds particular significance for global deals, where coordination of approval timelines across borders and jurisdictions plays a crucial role. Failure to meet this timeline results in the transaction being deemed unconditionally approved. India’s adoption of similar timelines signifies its dedication to enhancing efficiency and aligning with global best practices. By aligning with international standards, India enhances its competitiveness and attractiveness as a destination for M&A activities, providing greater certainty and expediting the approval process for transacting parties. Comprehensive Notifications   With the introduction of the “deemed approval” provision, there is an increased expectation that transacting parties will file more comprehensive notifications, providing greater emphasis on the details and potential competition concerns. This change encourages parties to conduct a thorough assessment of potential anti-competitive effects before submitting their notifications, ensuring a more robust review process. Invalidation of Notices   The Amendment Act may also lead to an increase in the invalidation of notices filed by parties due to the absence of substantive pre-filing consultation (PFC) with the CCI. Parties are now required to engage in meaningful consultations with the CCI prior to filing, ensuring that the necessary information and details are provided. Failure to do so may result in notices being invalidated, leading to delays and potential disruptions in the transaction process. The reduction in timelines and the introduction of deemed approval in the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023, bring welcomed changes. However, these adjustments also bring additional pressures on the CCI and M&A parties to expedite processes and provide necessary information promptly. As a consequence, there may be an increase in invalidated notices due to the absence of substantive pre-filing consultation (PFC) with the CCI. Furthermore, an increase in information requests from the CCI may disrupt the review timeline. Increase in Information Requests   To address the challenges posed by accelerated approval, stakeholders are likely to proactively engage in PFC meetings and collaborate with CCI case officers before formal filings. Another effect of these new deadlines might be an increase in the amount of information requests made by the CCI, which would halt the review timeline. These requests aim to gather additional data and insights to aid in the competition assessment. Parties’ response times to information requests made by the CCI are not included in (and may remain thus) the review deadlines that have been established. It is important to note that the implications discussed here are based on the anticipated effects of the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023. The true impact will only become clear as the new legislation is put into practice and the CCI adapts to the changes. As with any new legal framework, challenges and adjustments may arise, and stakeholders will need to closely monitor the implementation and enforcement of the Amendment Act. Potential Clock Stops The CCI’s merger control division will now need to keep a watchful eye on the review clock as M&A deals will be automatically cleared post 30 calendar days. The introduction of new regulations resulting from the amendments raises questions about potential “clock stops” during the review process. It remains to be seen if these regulations will permit additional grounds for halting the review timelines. Additionally, it is worth exploring whether the new regulations will allow for

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Post-CIRP Rental Dues as CIRP Costs: A Jurisprudential Inquiry

[By Yash Arjariya] The author is a student of Hidayatullah National Law University.   Introduction Section 5(21) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (hereinafter referred to as “IBC”) explains operational debt as a claim made in respect of ‘goods and services’. The earlier jurisprudence developed by the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (hereinafter referred to as “NCLAT”) in M. Ravindranath Reddy v. G. Kishan & Ors and subsequently followed in Promila Taneja v. Surendri Designe Pt. Ltd.held that rent of a leasehold property did not amount to ‘operational debt’ for the purpose of Sec 5(21) of IBC and purported to follow what can be described as the “direct-nexus test”, i.e., the supply by the creditor must directly relate to or affect the production of goods and services by the debtor to classify the creditor as operational creditor. The decision of the NCLAT in Jaipur Trade Expocentre Private Limited v. M/s Metro Jet Airways Training Pvt. Ltd.overruled the earlier interpretation of Sec 5(21) of IBC and provided that lease of premises is a ‘service’ and hence the claim of the licensor for the payment of licence fee is a claim of ‘operational debt’ within the meaning of Sec 5(21) of IBC. The dust, with respect to the classification of rental dues or leasehold dues as operational debt, is settled now. However, there remains to be an inquiry made about the treatment of rental or leasehold dues arising after a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Plan (hereinafter referred to as “CIRP”) has been filed and a moratorium is imposed, i.e., whether such dues will continue to be classified as operational debt or be included in CIRP costs. If such rental dues are considered as post-CIRP cost, they shall be treated as CIRP cost and would be payable to recipients on priority, as held by the National Company Law Tribunal (hereinafter referred to as, “NCLT”) in Hind Tradex Limited v. Lakshmi Precisions Screws.It is necessary to account for the explanation that, as per the scheme of distribution of assets as envisaged in Sec. 53 of the IBC, the insolvency resolution process costs are paid in full and in priority over other claims.Thus, when the resolution professional manages the business of the corporate debtor during insolvency proceedings, the question is whether the rental or leasehold amount becoming due after the insolvency proceedings have started should be considered CIRP costs or be pooled in the class of operational debt. The article examines the two different jurisprudential approaches to treating post-CIRP rental dues or leasehold dues as either cost or operational debt. Then, the author makes an attempt to address this proposition through the lens of a statutory creditor (established as a creature of law). The article concludes by listing and accounting for the carvings made in the jurisprudential epoch on this proposition. Post CIRP rental dues as ‘CIRP Cost’ In this respect, Prerna Singh v. CoC of M/s Xalta Food and Beverages Pvt. Ltd.(hereinafter referred to as “Prerna Singh”) can be said to be an epoch-making judgement. In the instant case, the operational creditor was extremely prejudiced by the moratorium imposed on account of the initiation of insolvency proceedings, to the extent of becoming insolvent in the near future. The NCLAT ordered the inclusion of post-CIRP rental dues in CIRP costs and their payment on priority. What NCLAT can be said to have devised as a rule is that if the right of the lessor to recover rent is affected on account of a moratorium, the lessor is entitled to recover the rent, which shall be included in the CIRP cost. The Chennai Bench of the NCLAT in S. Rajendran Resolution Professional of M/s Vasan Health Care Pvt. Ltd. v. B.M. Anand(hereinafter referred to as “S. Rajendran”) in its judgement necessarily read Section 5(13) of IBC into details enumerated in Regulation 31 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Persons) Regulations, 2016 to classify post-CIRP rental dues as CIRP cost. By doing so, the court has furthered the juristic principle that the rights of creditors must not be prejudiced by moratorium. However, this ‘prejudice to rights of creditor due to moratorium’ is qualified by the presentation of adequate facts and circumstances by the creditor; the law doesnot automatically classify post-CIRP rental dues as CIRP cost but on the warrant of a factum of circumstances. This factum has been a pendulum between a situation as weighty as nearly causing the bankruptcy of the creditor himself in Prerna Singh (supra) to a mere inadequacy of funds in S. Rajendran. The law in this respect was followed in a catena of judgements delivered by both NCLT and NCLAT inNishant Singhal v. Hasti Mal Kachhara, Oriental Insurance of Commerce v. Yamuna Infradevelopers Private Limited, and Santanu T. Ray v. Tata Capital Financial Services Limited. Necessary Outliers The classification of post-CIRP dues as CIRP cost has not necessarily been dealt as only an issue of fact, i.e, such classification does not exlusively depended on creditor proving that his/her rights have been prejudiced on account of moratorium. The judgement of NCLT in Karad Urban Co-Operative Bank Ltd. v. Khandoba Prasanna Sakhar Karkhana(which was later affirmed by the Supreme Court) has caused this proposition to transcend from entirely a issue to fact to so certain legal qualifications to be met. The NCLT held that an application for recovery of outstanding rental dues as CIRP cost cannot be filed after the application for approval of the resolution plan has already been filed with the adjudicating authority. The decision can be rationalised on the ground that such a belated filing of the application cannot be said to be anything but an attempt to forestall the resolution process. Thus, the law as it stands now requires the application for treatment of post-CIRP rental dues as CIRP costs to be filed before the resolution plan is filed for approval before the adjudicating authority. Case of a Statutory Creditor Section 14(1)(d) of the IBC provides a general rule as to the

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Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2022: Ambiguous gateways to Anti-trust pioneer-ship.

[By Rajdeep Bhattacharjee and Tanishq Rahuja] The authors are students of Symbiosis Law School, Pune.   Introduction The Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2022 proposes the addition of sub-section d in section 5(B) of the Competition Act, 2002. This new provision requires companies to have “substantial business operations” in India to come under the act’s scrutiny. The Director General of the CCI can only launch a probe if there is suspicion of adverse effects on competition in the relevant market in India under sections 5 and 6 of the principal acts. Without a specific definition provided in the bill, the interpretation of the term “substantial business operations” is unjustifiably wide. Hence, it is significant to note that how the term “substantial business operations” is finally construed by the Indian judicial system may determine how the parameter is applied. As a result, in instances of amalgamations, the ability to initiate a probe without any objective parameters may compromise the generality that the law is intended to promote. Therefore, this development opens a wide ambit of interpretations and may be misused by entities as a substantive loophole in this legislation as there exists no specific and distinctive criteria which is laid down for an entity to be regarded as occupied in substantial business operations. Addressing the Issue The lack of a clear definition of “substantial business operations” in the Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2022, poses a threat to the objective efficacy which is sought to be bolstered by this Bill. The primary concern arising out of this ambiguity is that of objectivity and legal inconsistencies that may arise due to the lack of clarity. A probable outcome of this might be prolonged litigation as was in the case of the redundant Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission. Hence, such an approach could potentially undermine the fundamental objective of the amendment to make India an attractive destination for foreign investment and businesses by creating unnecessary uncertainty and jeopardizing investment inflows. Furthermore, the absence of an objective definition creates a legislative cavity that is not addressed by the subsequent sub-section/s of the amendment either. Such legislative cavity leaves room for interpretation, which could be exploited by businesses to evade scrutiny. Therefore, definition of “substantial business operations” is essential for the effective implementation of the legislation and the promotion of a level playing field for enterprises. Moreover, without a precise definition, unforeseen repercussions may arise, defeating the primary objective of the act. Possible interpretations Some possible objective criteria which can be employed to measure the extent of substantial business operations, are as follows: –           Geographic scope –           Market share –           Revenue –           An amalgamation of the above three factors The manner in which a lack of objective definition may be misused by entities to escape scrutiny are as follows: Setting up a shell company, wherein they will have a negligible presence in India while the majority of its business operations are conducted through the parent company outside India. Creating complex ownership structures, by setting up multiple subsidiaries or using a network of affiliated companies which will jeopardize the ability of CCI to determine whether the company has substantial business operations in India or not. Misrepresenting data by understating revenue or market share in India, or by overemphasizing the significance of its operations outside India. In furtherance of addressing this conundrum, this piece strives to briefly analyse the future possibilities and comparative models to mitigate the ensuing roadblocks which may arise due to lack of objectivity/clarity. Locus standi of United States of America The Supreme Court of America (SCOTUS) in the case of Goodyear Dunlop Tires Operations, S.A. v. Brown has held that mere presence of substantial sales in a particular jurisdiction does not amount to an entity having substantial business operations in a specific jurisdiction. It was further held that mere exercise of legitimate jurisdiction of a US court over a foreign enterprise, does not indicate that the enterprise necessarily owns or controls a significant amount of tangible or intangible assets there. The fact that a foreign defendant has a US subsidiary with sizeable assets typically will not be enough to “pierce the corporate veil” of the subsidiary and establish a claim against the parent, when full control is not with the parent. Consequently, in accordance with the Horizontal Merger Guidelines, market share, customer base, and resources are evaluated to identify “substantial business operations” for a horizontal merger and weigh the effects on market competition. In the landmark case of U.S. v Waste Management, Inc, the court stated that to determine whether an entity has substantial business operations, it is quintessential to determine whether the entity in question is engaged in competitive activity in the relevant market or markets, and if the disputed activities are competitive in nature. Despite that, it is noteworthy that the US lacks a specific definition of substantial market operations or a threshold, assessing on a case-by-case basis. This jeopardizes business operation standardization and creates investor uncertainty. Precedents have led to some standardization over time. Generally, determination of “substantial business operations” is based on various factors such as: Revenue Assets Physical presence. The German & Austrian Model Through the Joint Guidance on Transaction Value Thresholds for Mandatory Pre-Merger Notification, issued jointly by the German Federal Cartel Office along with the Austrian Federal Competition Authority, the definition of substantial domestic operations has been clearly established. The criteria laid down by the regulatory bodies in their joint notification for assessing substantial domestic operations can be summarised as: Measurement of Domestic Activity; Geographical Allocation of Domestic Activity; Market Orientation and Significance of the same. The sections dealing with the same are Section 35(1a) no. 4 GWB of the German code and its Austrian counterpart, Section 9(4) KartG. In accordance with these sections, merger control will come to the fore where the target company whose acquisition is to be done or its acquisitions have substantial operations in either of the respective jurisdictions. The criteria are also mentioned wherein the specific thresholds for domestic and global turnover have been

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